
Originally Posted by
HoustonGM
You're taking DIPS theory to an entirely incorrect level.
First off, I don't know what the league average FIP is, but FIP is an estimation of a pitcher's ERA based on his peripheral numbers, so it's safe to assume that league-average is about around league-average ERA, in which case 4.72 would be a little below league average, but not bad.
Secondly, his FIP just tells you how he pitched based on his peripherals. This does not tell you how much value his provided. A pitcher's job is to prevent runs. The job of the pitcher isn't to walk few batters, strikeout a lot, and keep the ball in the park. Those are all CONDUCIVE to preventing runs, but a pitcher can still do those things well and be less valuable than a pitcher who did those things worse than him. A pitcher could post a 3.00 FIP, but if he allowed 6 runs per 9 innings, he wasn't valuable.
FIP is best used to project the future. FIP is more stable than ERA. The FIP can help you decide if his value was due to his actual ability, or if it was partially due to flukes like a high LOB% or BABIP. You can use this to better project how a pitcher will do in the future. A pitcher with a low FIP and a high ERA is more likely to post a lower ERA in the future than a pitcher with a high FIP and low ERA.
The FIP helps you project how he will do in the future. It does not assess past value.
As I said, you're taking the DIPS principles too far. They're meant to help project the future of players. They do not, nor are they meant to, assess a player's past value.